Should the person who owns the house (mortgage in their name) or the person paying for the mortgage (no rights to home) get profits from home sale?

LC

I’m hoping outside opinions will help answer this because it’s a hot topic in my household.

One family member owns a home (mortgage is solely in their name) and their son lives in this home and pays mortgage like it’s their own. We recently found out that he has not been paying the mortgage on time and has gotten behind to the point the house was in pre foreclosure. The homeowner was unaware this was going on as he trusted his son and had to pay off all the debt to become current. The homeowners credit is now ruined. I

The house is now for sale and there will be a large profit on the house.

Question- who should get the money? The homeowner who now has their credit ruined or the person who was supposed to be paying mortgage? If it should be split, what percentage?

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