Okay ladies, I'm on my 3rd cycle of just clomid now. First cycle at 50 mg and last 2 at 100 mg. I have produced just 1 follicle and Ovulated each time. First cycle my progesterone being 8.5, last cycle at 14.1 (which she said meant I had a good o) and I don't get this month's pulled until a week from now.. Next cycle we are switching my meds if this cycle doesn't work because the clomid gave me dizzy spells and made me see spots and floaters. At first she said she'd switch me over to Femara and then said instead she's going to reduce me to 50 mg clomid and add Femara to take at the same time. I'm having a hard time looking this up to see how they work together and why my RE would choose such an uncommon protocol (not that I'm questioning her judgement, she's been great)? I don't ovulate pretty much at all on my own.