Here’s the scenario: a husband left his wife and started seeing another girl two weeks later. The wife legitimately cheated on her husband with two different men in the past, but he has never been with another woman while married to her. She’s always been the jealous type and afraid that he was cheating on her- to the point of having a tracker on his phone, checking his phone logs for calls and texts everyday, and even getting a second job where he had his second job to make sure he wasn’t cheating with someone who worked there (and then getting fired from this job for coming to hang out at the place while she wasn’t on schedule and threatening to whoop an innocent coworkers butt- but that’s another story). The husband has tried to leave two times in the past because of the constant nagging and trust issues she has with him that generally make his life miserable, but stayed for his kids and not wanting them to have a “broken family”. Anyway, the husband told the wife that he couldn’t do it anymore, that he had been trying to make this work for the past year but nothing has changed, he doesn’t love her anymore and he moved out. He’s talked in depth with the kids (teenagers) about all of this and they know what’s going on and still spend time with both of their parents. Anyway, I’m saying all of this to ask this question: is it considered cheating that he stated seeing someone after he left her? No doubt it is going to hurt her that he has moved on, but does she really get to claim that she was cheated on when he didn’t start seeing the lady until AFTER he moved out? I understand that legally they are still married, but emotionally, physically, financially, and so on, they are not.

Also, this isn’t about me! I’m happily married! The end of the month is our one year anniversary. We have a 21 month old son and I’m currently 6 weeks pregnant with our second ❤️🤰🏻