Five years ago (right around the time we were getting married) my husband and I agreed that we would both not to talk to our ex’s. My husband had a kid with another woman many years before me, and that kid died before I even met my husband. So I understand that very occasionally he needs to talk to that woman to maintain the gravesite - that’s fine. Both our ex’s have called us once or twice since then out of the blue and we’ve told each other about it - no problems.

But now today I find out that his ex has been texting him on average a couple times a month to check in.... for the past five years. I didn’t know that.

He claims our agreement was about “talking to” our ex’s which, to him, means having a phone conversation, and that it doesn’t include no texts. I say that’s BS and that it’s implied that when we agreed “no talking to” that means no phone calls OR texts.

Who’s right??