Editing to add- he claims he didn’t call in the script. I’m not sure why the pharmacy filled it when it wasn’t called in personally.

So my husband was given viagra last year because he was having some difficulty’s due to low testosterone levels and the medication to get the testosterone up left him with zero drive. He got the medication and took it once or twice. Did NOTHING for him besides make his workout better.

It’s been 10 months since he had that prescription, then all of a sudden the pharmacy calls stating it’s been filled and ready for pick up. He has not had any issues recently, so I couldn’t understand why he’d call in a refill. Especially since he threw the other bottle out.

I called him to let him know they had it ready and the cost. He asked if he should get it to help his workouts again. I said it’s not worth the money in my opinion but if he wanted to give it a go to go ahead. It’s a very low dose and he can take up to 6 pills a day. (This is not name brand) I said since he didn’t fill it and he didn’t want it there wasn’t a need to buy it.

He comes home with the medication and I said “I thought you wasn’t getting it?” He then gets upset saying that I told him to get it. I said there was some miscommunication, and that if he felt it helped get a better workout in, then do what he wanted, but if he was just getting it to get it leave it there. He starts to apologize and was acting funny. Now he has an attitude with me about it. It wasn’t even that big of a deal, but his behavior makes me wonder.

Yes, he’s cheated in the past and used viagra to help him when he cheated. So I’m already on edge. But am I overthinking this?