Some backstory, my husband and I were really good at using condoms consistently for the first bit of our marriage, then our perfect use has become less and less perfect this last little bit. It started with him wanting to know how it felt without anything, but the first couple times that only lasted a couple seconds before a condom went on because he'd avoid finishing inside.

Two days before my period was estimated to start (on 3 different apps) we had complete unprotected sex, and tomorrow I will have been 8 days delayed and plan to take a pregnancy test.

Is it possible that I conceived from the two days before and that's why my period hasn't come, or is it from one of the other times previous(if I am pregnant)? I'm leaning more towards the second option but I'm wondering if the first option has happened to anyone else.

I have very regular periods, but can't tell from my body when I'm ovulating so I don't know when that happens but I've heard it's a fairly close estimate if my periods are regular.