So I know I’m overthinking this situation but I need some advice to clear things up to make me feel better.

So condoms are only 98% effective with perfect use. Perfect use means no leaks, didn’t break, and was worn the whole time. So explain to me how that wasn’t perfect use to make 100% effective? Does that mean that even though the condom didn’t break and nothing leaked and it was worn the whole time that there is still 2% that it didn’t work??