Now maybe I'm just not understanding some of this bullshit! BUT, my husbands got a fantastic job with great benefits. Our insurance is 80/20, once our deductible has been met. (Has been) we've been making $350 monthly payments to my OBGYN since we found out about being pregnant. Our last one was October. Now, my OBGYN said that these payments go straight to my deductible, so that it gets met. GREAT! Well so we THOUGHT?! (Our insurance also cover 3 Ultrasounds as well) anyways, we got a bill in the mail for a ultrasound of THE FULL AMOUNT. I call the hospital say that this is COMPLETELY WRONG, and she looks within my information and states that our deductiable HASNT BEEN MET YET! I'm like EXCUSE ME? It's been met FOREVER AGO. She says to call my insurance. As I do, I'm talking to a rep and she states that it hasn't been met. And I INFORM HER THAT MY HUSBAND AND I HAVE BEEN MAKING $350 payments to my OBGYN for almost a 5-6 months and that IT IS INDEED MET! AND she states that my OBGYN has ONLY BEEN SENDING IN $20.00 claims for my urine. ARE YOU FUCKING KIDDING ME?!?!? He hasn't even been sending in WHAT WEVE BEEN PAYING HIM, and it had been stated to us MORE THAN A COUPLE TIMES THAT our monthly payments GO TO OUR DEDUCTIBLE! IS THIS LEGAL?!?!  If he would've been sending in WHAT WEVE BEEN PAYING HIM THEN WE WOULDNT OF GOT AN ULTRASOUND BILL FOR THE FULL AMOUNT BECAUSE OUR DEDUCTIBLE HAD BEEN MET FOREVER AGO!!! Our insurance lady stated that they indeed owe us money!   ANYONE knowing anything to do with this I'd like some input!