My doctor has me on clomid for my progesterone/ovulation and it was successful but unfortunately it was ectopic. She claims it was probably due to low progesterone which affected my egg's motility. Now I am able to try again and she wants to go back to doing the same exact thing only prescribing me progesterone AFTER I get a BFP. Why would that make sense if implantation would have already occurred at that point. It makes more sense to me to start after ovulation but before I get a BFP.