If someone manipulates another to have sex with them does that count as rape?
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Anyway, if someone consented to having sex with someone, only if they didn't have any stds, they still used a condom but unfortunately it wasn't effective. Keep in mind b4 consenting 1 if the partners specifically asked the other if they had any stds, and made it clear that they needed to be honest because they wouldn't have sex with them otherwise (informed consent). Is that still considered rape by deceit?
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